Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 01:05
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What are "the new net zero jobs of tomorrow" that SNP's Stephen Flynn says his party would create?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
What are some questions obviously just asked for sexual gratification?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.